Intragroup sales question

Hi everyone,
I am preparing for P2 using the BPP kit and I got to a point where I think I’ve lost my mind – so I cannot find a reasonable explanation of the following (even though it’s F7 material):
question 36 Preparation question: Associate
(d) P Co Manufactures a components used by J Co only. Transfers are made by P Co at cost plus 25%. J Co held $100,000 of these components in inventories at 31 December 20X5.
In this question P Co is the subsidiary and J co is the parent, I’ve properly removed the PUP, however I’ve also removed the whole 100K from the consolidated SOFP Group Receivables and Payables, but that’s not the case in the solution.
Can you remind me why is this the case?
Thanks!