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International operations and international investment appraisal

Ddeeksha3y ago
Hi John, Question: A manufacturing company based in the United Kingdom is evaluating an investment project overseas – in REBMATT a politically stable country. It will cost an initial 5.0 million REBMATT dollars (RM$) and it is expected to earn post-tax cash flows as follows: Year 1 2 3 4 Cash flow RM$'000 1,500 1,900 2,500 2,700 The following information is available: ? Real interest rates in the two countries are the same. They are expected to remain the same for the period of the project. ? The current spot rate is RM$ 2 per £1. ? The risk-free rate of interest in REBMATT is 7% and in the UK 9%. ? The company requires a UK return from this project of 16%. Required: Calculate the £ net present value of the project using the standard method i.e. by discounting annual cash flows in £. Solution: Calculation of exchange rates Using the interest rate parity theory: Year 1 2.00 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.9633 Year 2 1.9633 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.9273 Year 3 1.9273 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.8919 Year 4 1.8919 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.8572 Doubt: Why have we taken 2.00 in the numerator, shouldn't it be 0.5? I mean spot rate is RM$ 2 per £1 i.e. RM$/£ = 0.5.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor3y ago#1
No. 2 is the numerator because RM is quoted against the Pound and therefore the Pound is the 'base' currency in the formula. Have you watched my free lectures on forecasting future exchange rates?
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