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International operations and international investment appraisal

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › International operations and international investment appraisal

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 26, 2023 at 2:39 pm #679629
    deekshabee
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 22
    • ☆

    Hi John,

    Question: A manufacturing company based in the United Kingdom is evaluating an
    investment project overseas – in REBMATT a politically stable country. It
    will cost an initial 5.0 million REBMATT dollars (RM$) and it is expected
    to earn post-tax cash flows as follows:
    Year 1 2 3 4
    Cash flow RM$’000 1,500 1,900 2,500 2,700
    The following information is available:
    ? Real interest rates in the two countries are the same. They are
    expected to remain the same for the period of the project.
    ? The current spot rate is RM$ 2 per £1.
    ? The risk-free rate of interest in REBMATT is 7% and in the UK 9%.
    ? The company requires a UK return from this project of 16%.
    Required:
    Calculate the £ net present value of the project using the standard
    method i.e. by discounting annual cash flows in £.

    Solution: Calculation of exchange rates
    Using the interest rate parity theory:
    Year 1 2.00 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.9633
    Year 2 1.9633 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.9273
    Year 3 1.9273 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.8919
    Year 4 1.8919 × 1.07/1.09 = 1.8572

    Doubt: Why have we taken 2.00 in the numerator, shouldn’t it be 0.5? I mean spot rate is RM$ 2 per £1 i.e. RM$/£ = 0.5.

    February 27, 2023 at 4:34 am #679673
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54655
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No. 2 is the numerator because RM is quoted against the Pound and therefore the Pound is the ‘base’ currency in the formula.

    Have you watched my free lectures on forecasting future exchange rates?

  • Author
    Posts
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