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The method to calculate the expected credit losses remains the same, whether the asset is credit impaired or credit risk has increased significantly/is still low. In all 3 conditions same way of calculating credit loss, as the PV of difference between contractual cash flows and the cash flows entity expects to receive i.e. cash shortfall?
or there is a different method for credit -imapired assets? The one that involves Gross carrying amount of asset less PV of future cash flows that entity expects to receive?
tutor pls, can you corroborate this?
You will be given the CA and the PV of expected future credit losses. (How much do we stand to lose…………..discounted to PV).
As you know you then deduct one from the other.
As always the marks are given if you can explain what you have done in a way that the directors understand.
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