The method to calculate the expected credit losses remains the same, whether the asset is credit impaired or credit risk has increased significantly/is still low. In all 3 conditions same way of calculating credit loss, as the PV of difference between contractual cash flows and the cash flows entity expects to receive i.e. cash shortfall?
or there is a different method for credit -imapired assets? The one that involves Gross carrying amount of asset less PV of future cash flows that entity expects to receive?