Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Impairment of assets
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by P2-D2.
- AuthorPosts
- October 28, 2018 at 1:59 pm #480058
Could you please explain the following:
If valuation of the building indicated no impairment , can we conclude that the Property should be valued at CV for CGU?I could not find in the text the reference to this.I understand that it must not be lower than Realisable value, but why valuation of Building refers to Property, why not to leave Plant and Intangibles at CV?
Thank you.October 28, 2018 at 2:12 pm #480059In the text, they mean market value of buildings.
October 30, 2018 at 8:34 pm #480267Hi,
I’m sorry, but I don’t fully understand your point. Can you please try and explain it a bit further?
Thanks
October 31, 2018 at 5:25 am #480301Hi,
In Kaplan kit they say:A division of a company has the following balances in its financial statements:
Goodwill $700,000
Plant $950,000
Property $2,300,000
Intangibles $800,000
Other net assets $430,000
Following a period of losses, the recoverable amount of the division is deemed to be
$4 million. A recent valuation of the building showed that the building has a market value of
$2.5 million. The other net assets are at their recoverable amount. The company uses the
cost model for valuing property, plant and equipment.Question:To the nearest thousand, what is the balance on property following the impairment
review?In the answer they explain as following:valuation of 2.5 mln indicates that there is no impairment.Answer is 2.3 mln.
My question:
I understand that it must not be lower than Realisable value, but is there any rule that valuation of building gives us reference to property only? What about plant, for ex?
Thank you.November 3, 2018 at 7:00 am #483627Hi,
Thanks for the additional information. The division (CGU) is impaired as its carrying value is greater than the recoverable amount of $4 million.
In allocating the impairment loss, it goes against specific assets that are impaired and goodwill before being allocated to the remaining assets on a pro-rata basis.
On allocating the impairment on a pro-rata basis it wouldn’t be allocated to the property as we’re given specific information in the question that states in a recent valuation, its carrying value is below its market value, so there is no impairment to this asset. The impairment is then allocated to the intangibles, plant and other net assets.
Hope that clears it up for you.
Thanks
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.