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Im a bit confused on how excess depreciation transfers have been made in example 2 of the lecture ive linked to above.
Are transfers from revaluation reserve to retained earnings for excess depreciation done each year subsequently after a revaluation? or is it just done on the first year of revaluation?
No, it is done for every year after the revaluation has been done. Depreciation is an annual charge and so the excess depreciation will therefore arise every year too.
Thank you so much! much appreciated.