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IAS21

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › IAS21

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 31, 2015 at 2:51 pm #250977
    Ruby
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Hi Mike,

    I would like to ask about the treatment when you retranslating a foreign sub net asset

    Good will is at closing rate as it is asset

    How about G/W impairment loss? I have been traslating at average rate but I saw one example in bpp they translate at closing rate.

    Please confirm. Thank you!

    May 31, 2015 at 4:13 pm #251031
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If you’ve worked through the example in the course notes (Grainger and Malfoy) I think you’ll find that I also translate each year at closing rate

    May 31, 2015 at 4:18 pm #251034
    Ruby
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Is it a rule or is it specified anywhere in IAS21? As i thought impairment loss in a P/L item, therefore it should be translated at average rate?

    May 31, 2015 at 4:19 pm #251036
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What do you do with depreciation?

    May 31, 2015 at 4:22 pm #251037
    Ruby
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Average rate. All P/L items. Unless i know the rate at the day of transactions took place

    May 31, 2015 at 4:27 pm #251038
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    But that means that you’re translating depreciation on the statement of income at average rate and deducting it from the asset at closing rate? Is that correct?

    May 31, 2015 at 4:37 pm #251047
    Ruby
    Member
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Ah….. I see what you mean here.

    However I’m still confused.

    For subsidiary assets, we translate (from sub’s SOFP) at closing rate and that’s done. Because any depreciation is charged in the sub R.E and finally we translate the post R.E at average rate.

    But for Goodwill, since we recognized it in our SOFP since acquisition, at the reporting date its value maybe different due to exchange rate change, so we have to translate again at closing rate. Impairment loss happens through out the year so translate at average rate. then any difference is FX gain/loss. Correct?

    Opening GW @ opening rate
    less impairment loss @ average rate
    FX gain/loss (balance)
    = closing GW @ closing rate

    This is the method I was told in the revision class of one lecturer. I find this in conflic with your method. I wonder if there is any rules on this or is it subject to flexibility?

    May 31, 2015 at 5:07 pm #251067
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23309
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I have to say that it’s open to flexibility! By applying the equation:

    Opening net assets @ opening rate (as translated)
    +
    Retained earnings for the year as translated
    +/-
    exchange difference (balancing figure)
    =
    Closing net assets at closing rate (as translated)

    I don’t remember seeing an example where the goodwill in the foreign subsidiary was impaired in the year in question!

    There is no impairment in the subsidiary’s records and none in the subsidiary’s statement of profit or loss. Goodwill is a consolidation adjustment, not something that is accounted for in the subsidiary’s records. So there’s no translation involved!

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