• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for March and June 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

IAS 33 – EPS

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › IAS 33 – EPS

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 21, 2023 at 3:01 pm #695207
    28sharmila
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi Tutor, hope you’re doing well.
    I found the following question in the ACCA study hub:
    The most recent statement of profit or loss of Waylor reported a profit before tax of $1,258,000 and a tax expense of $224,000. Half way through the year the company had issued 40,000 bonus shares which brought the total number of shares in issue to 440,000.

    In accordance with IAS 33 Earnings per Share, what is Waylor’s basic earnings per share?

    $2.35
    $2.47
    $2.86
    $2.99

    Solution: The correct answer is A.
    Earnings = Operating profit ? tax (i.e. $1,034,000)
    The bonus shares issued during the year should be included in the number of shares. Therefore, ?EPS equals $1,034,000 over 440,000 equals $2.35

    My query is: Why haven’t they apportioned the bonus issue of 40,000 shares by 6/12 since the question says that the bonus shares were issued halfway through the year?
    **If we do apportion the bonus shares of 40,000 by 6/12, we will get the “weighted average no.of shares” as 420,000 shares ((40,000*6/12)+400,000 in issue).
    **So we will get the basic EPS figure as $2.462 (1,034,000/420,000) which is close to the answer in the “option B) $2.47”. Kindly clarify my query ASAP. Thank you!

    November 25, 2023 at 10:14 pm #695504
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7156
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    In this scenario you don’t need to do any time apportionment as the only thing to have happened during the year is the bonus issue of shares.

    Given that there are 440,000 shares in issue at the end of the year then with a bonus issues then we assume that the shares have been in issue for the entire year, so we simply use the 440,000 as our number of shares.

    Thanks

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • bpop on Risk and uncertainty (part 2) – ACCA (AFM) lectures
  • kamo7293 on Financial performance – Example 2 – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • nevertoolate on CIMA BA2 – Regression analysis
  • Ken Garrett on The nature and structure of organisations – ACCA Paper BT
  • Ark1 on The nature and structure of organisations – ACCA Paper BT

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in