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IAS – 33

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › IAS – 33

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by saadathar14.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 26, 2021 at 2:29 pm #636523
    saadathar14
    Participant
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hello Sir,
    In the context of diluted EPS, I would like you to give me an example of the following line and explain why this happens.

    “A separate class of equity shares which at present is not entitled to any divided, but will be entitled after some future date”.

    Thanks!

    September 29, 2021 at 8:53 pm #636708
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7142
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    It is quite literal in that the company has in issues some equity shares that do not give the owner the right to a dividend. There will be terms/conditions then attached that after a particular date the owner will be entitled to a dividend. It is likely to be the case with smaller/start up businesses that want to attract equity investment but won’t have the cash flow initially to pay a dividend but will do at some point in the future.

    Thanks

    October 16, 2021 at 10:40 am #637803
    saadathar14
    Participant
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Thank You very much sir!

  • Author
    Posts
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