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Highveldt Bpp

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Highveldt Bpp

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 10, 2021 at 10:31 pm #609964
    StefanosG
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,

    I am having difficulties with the 2 additional information as below
    How was the accounting treatment for that 2 addtional information?

    Highveldt, a public listed company, acquired 75% of Samson’s ordinary shares on 1 April 20X4. Highveldt paid an
    immediate Rs.3·50 per share in cash and agreed to pay a further amount of Rs.108 million on 1 April 20X5.
    Highveldt’s cost of capital is 8% per annum. Highveldt has only recorded the cash consideration of Rs.3·50 per
    share.
    The summarised statements of financial position of the two companies at 31 March 20X5 are shown below:
    Highveldt Samson
    $million $million

    Tangible non-current assets (note (i)) 420 320
    Development costs (note (iv)) Nil 40
    Investments (note (ii)) 300 20
    Total NCA 720 380
    Current assets 133 91
    Total assets 853 471
    Equity and liabilities
    Ordinary shares of Rs.1 each 270 80
    Share premium 80 40
    Revaluation surplus 45 nil
    Retained earnings – 1 April 20X4 160 134
    -year to 31 March 20X5 190 76
    Total equity 745 330

    Non-current liabilities
    10% inter company loan (note (ii)) Nil 60
    Current liabilities 108 81
    Total equity and liabilities 853 471

    (ii) Included in Highveldt’s investments is a loan of Rs.60 million made to Samson at the date of acquisition.
    Interest is payable annually in arrears. Samson paid the interest due for the year on 31 March 20X5, but
    Highveldt did not receive this until after the year end. Highveldt has not accounted for the accrued
    interest from Samson.

    (iv) Samson’s development project was completed on 30 September 20X4 at a cost of Rs.50 million. Rs.10
    million of this had been amortised by 31 March 20X5. Development costs capitalised by Samson at the
    date of acquisition were Rs.18 million. Highveldt’s directors are of the opinion that Samson’s
    development costs do not meet the criteria in IAS 38 ‘Intangible Assets’ for recognition as an asset.

    Consolidated retained earnings

    Highveld. Samson
    Per question. 350. 76.
    Accrued interest
    From Samson Co
    60×10%. 6
    Unwinding of
    discount. (8)
    Amortization of
    Brand. (4)
    Development
    Expenditure (32)
    Write back amorti. 10
    Unrealised profit. (2)
    348. 48
    Group share. 75%. 36
    Impairment. 20*75%. (15)
    369

    1) Why do we include the finance income from the subsidiary in the retained earnings ? I thought we didn’t include income from intercompany transactions in the consolidated retained earnings.
    Also when we have finance income and finance cost between the companies how do we eliminate them?
    2)Also could you please explain me the calculation behind the fair value adjustments .

    Thank you.

    February 13, 2021 at 10:58 am #610231
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    1) The finance income has not been recorded in the parent, so it needs to be recorded so that the books of the parent are correct first. Once this has been done then we can eliminate any intra-group balances on the group SFP.

    2) The costs do not meet the development criteria, as per the additional information. The amortisation of 10 million therefore needs to be added back. The cost element also needs to be adjusted for. The cost was initially 18 million at acquisition and is now 50 million at the reporting date, the post acquisition movement is therefore 32 million and needs to be removed too.

    Thanks

    February 14, 2021 at 4:56 pm #610408
    StefanosG
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Thank you,

    I am still a bit confused with the finance income.

    Ok so first step we eliminate the intragroup transaction of the finance income and the finance receivable.

    Then why do we add it back to the calculation of the parents retained earnings if it is eliminated? Income from subsidiary cannot be included in the parents retained earnings just like PUP right? Or am i loosing something?

    Thank you.

    February 19, 2021 at 8:03 pm #610998
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    Although we eliminate the intra-group interest on a line by line basis in the group SPL, the overall impact does not change the profitability as it remains the same. There is no adjustment to eliminate any profit in the group SFP, given that there has been no change in profitability.

    The entry to the parent’s retained earnings is to record the finance income correctly and then does not need to be adjusted.

    In a similar way with the intra-group sales. We eliminate them from the group SPL but there is no adjustment to the retained earnings in the group SFP.

    Thanks

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