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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Held for sale (IFRS5)
Hi,
Is there a decent question to review on this topic and is there a good way to approach such a question?
The limited questions I have seen appear to make this issue rather complex with depn, impairments and / or revaluations all taking place in the year.
Is there a standard tabular approach to this type of question?
Q25 MINCO JUN14
I completely follow the answer subject to a couple of typos e.g. ($4m – $1 – $0.1 m – $0.35) somehow equals $2.55m which I do get, however when an asset that is held for sale which is subsequently adjusted for impairments and revaluations a tabular approach would be nice, does one exist…?
The final part that is confusing me are the accounting entries, as follows:-
impairment $0.35m
DR P&L $0.35m
CR PPE $0.35m
impairment $0.15m
DR P&L $0.15m
CR PPE $0.15m
revaluation $0.12m
CR P&L $0.12m
DR PPE $0.12m
revaluation $0.43m (limited to the amount already impaired)
CR P&L $0.38m
DR PPE $0.38m
CR OCI $0.05m ?????? this is assumed as I cant find it in the answer ????????
Apologies for the long question, hopefully the answer is much shorter…
Thanks.
Hi,
Yes it complicated but have you watched the videos on impairments and revaluations? There is a standard format that it used in those.
Thanks
thanks, I have watched the videos and I have the course notes, I will watch again.
What’s your view on Minco, and the excess impairment, does the transfer (recycling) now take place as the asset value has changed to a value greater than that impaired or will the lecture answer that as well, great if it does…
thanks for the reply..
You cannot increase its value to above that which it would have been had it not previously been impaired.
