Hardy Analysis

Hi Chris,

I needed help i legit dont understand this note in the kaplan exam kit for the answer to the question

It says:

Not appropriate to revise equity upwards (Q1: Are they talking about revising the 2009 figure or what cause the adjustment surplus in 2009 and we’re suppose to adjust and find the underlying figure for 2010, also to be sure we are talking about the FVTPL of the loss in market value of property still right) (Q2: how are you even going to revise it upwards?) for the one-off losses when calculating equity based underlying figure as the losses will be continuing part of equity unless they reverse (Q3: Right, so how is reversal is being done? How is it still continuing? Like whats the reason/circumstances?) even if/when future earnings recover. (Q4: Future earning recover because of market is no longer in recession or when the PFY is not showing a lost? How can the PFY not showing a loss? is it due to the adjust underlying 2010 is making a profit of 2300?

So basically i wanted to to can you please clarify that note for me again please. Complete unfathomable region. Not sure my brain is saturated or that is it porous enough.