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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Goodwill impairment
Hello dear tutor,
Would you please help me about impairment of goodwill when we have calculate the goodwill with full goodwill method. I don’t understand why we allocate the goodwill impairment expense to both parent and NCI based on their investment proportion and not their REAL proportion on goodwill!!
For example suppose we have :
Fair value on subsidiary net asset = 100
Parent (80%) = 150
NCI (20%) = 21
So in this case the goodwill will be 150+21 – 100 = 71, ( so we know 70 of the goodwill is for parent and 1 for NCI)
Now suppose goodwill has to be impaired by 10%:
so the impairment loss = 71*10% = 7.1.
According to my logic: we have to deduct 7 from RE (ie 70 * 10%) and 0.1 from NCI (ie 1 * 10 %).
But according to the method of the book we have to deduct 7.1 * 80% from RE and 7.1 * 20% from NC!!! WHY? why we are using their investment proportion and not their proportion on goodwill! This method does not seem logical for me at all 🙁
Thank you for your kind help
Hi,
If you watch the following video then this will begin to clear up your issue.
https://opentuition.com/acca/fr/group-sfp-goodwill-acca-financial-reporting-fr/
Thanks
