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Forex

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Forex

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 14, 2021 at 9:15 am #610321
    dvamfire
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    Hello sir,
    If balance of payment deficit, meaning import> export.
    so import will be cheaper and export will be expensive to the foreign purchaser.

    The import will be cheaper because of high inflation in domestic country? so people choose to buy outside?

    February 14, 2021 at 10:55 am #610356
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If the importer is being invoiced in their own currency then yes.

    If the importer is being invoiced in the exporters currency, then although the cost will be inflated less their currency will have depreciated and so they will (in theory) end up having to pay the same amount.

    February 14, 2021 at 1:19 pm #610374
    dvamfire
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 29
    • ☆☆

    i see, so balance of payment deficit does not lead to an appreciation domestic currency right?

    February 14, 2021 at 2:46 pm #610389
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54684
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No – a depreciation.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Forex’ is closed to new replies.

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