Hello, regarding IFRS 9 and being measured at amortisation cost, the standard says the following:
4.1.2 A financial asset shall be measured at amortised cost if both of the following conditions are met: (a) the financial asset is held within a business model whose objective is to hold financial assets in order to collect contractual cash flows and (b) the contractual terms of the financial asset give rise on specified dates to cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding.
My question is, what exactly is the difference ? they both mention a cash flow into the business.