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Hello Sir,
I would like to ask why the calculation of the amortization cost of the financial debt instrument (asset) are different?
Based on the technical article on Acca website,
https://www.accaglobal.com/uk/en/student/exam-support-resources/professional-exams-study-resources/strategic-business-reporting/technical-articles/ifrs-9.html#Impairment-of-financial-assets“(i) If classified as FVTPL
This requires that the fair value of the bond is measured based upon expected future cash flows discounted at the current market rate of interest of 6% as follows:”They are using the discounting method which differs from the textbook and the opentuition note, which method is correct? Thank you.
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