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Sir I wanted to understand why the UK government is approximately giving 40%(25%+75%*20%) total tax deduction on buy- to-let residential property whereas it is making the interest payments on non-residential property as fully allowable? why exactly? Why is the tax system so biased towards industrialists and not making way for affordable housing for all?
I acknowledge the fact that it is not entirely related to our syllabus, but sir you have a knack for going deep and beyond, as far as your lectures are concerned. So I am a little curious to understand this from you. Would much appreciate your reply.
Thanks in advance.
Andy – I have made this point to you several times before – this material is provided to allow students to achieve a good pass in the exam – condensing several hundred pages of notes from Study Manuals into something that is learnable by the student and giving you detailed lectures to help you learn what you MUST know to pass the exam. Stop asking why and learn how – otherwise you run the risk of failing this exam
Please do not make that mistake!
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