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Finance cost

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Finance cost

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by mika84.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 19, 2019 at 9:42 am #516409
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Sorry for returning back to the same question.Could you please look at below problem and explain the following:
    800 loan interest paid represents expense.In calculating current charge to SOPL we take only 2400 (6%effective rate by 80000 and half year as loan was issued 1.04.2007).My question is in contrast with income tax, we do not consider that balance of 800, right?i think, 800 represents expense which was not paid but in case of tax the b/f balance represents over/under provision.Is this right?

    The following trial balance relates to Llama, a listed company, at 30 September 2007:
    $000 $000
    Land and buildings – at valuation 1 October 2006 (note (i)) 130,000
    Plant – at cost (note (i)) 128,000
    Accumulated depreciation of plant at 1 October 2006 32,000
    Investments – at fair value through profit and loss (note (i)) 26,500
    Investment income 2,200
    Cost of sales (note (i)) 89,200
    Distribution costs 11,000
    Administrative expenses 12,500
    Loan interest paid 800
    Inventory at 30 September 2007 37,900
    Income tax (note (ii)) 400
    Trade receivables 35,100
    Revenue 180,400
    Equity shares of 50 cents each fully paid 60,000
    Retained earnings at 1 October 2006 25,500
    2% loan note 2009 (note (iii)) 80,000
    Trade payables 34,700
    Revaluation reserve (arising from land and buildings) 14,000
    Deferred tax 11,200
    Suspense account (note (iv)) 24,000
    Bank 6,600
    ––––––– –––––––
    471,000
    –––––––
    471,000
    –––––––

    May 21, 2019 at 3:19 pm #516713
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Dear Chris,
    I looked through the text once more and realized that this 800 represent loan interest paid.So, 2400 is expense amount and 2400-800 =1600 will be added to Liabilty amount.
    My question is, is it right to suppose that if it is written that the amount is paid then its not expense for previous period?Because logically i think if this is Loan interest Debit then it is interest expense.

    May 21, 2019 at 8:36 pm #516764
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The tax balance is the over/under provision. The interest paid is likely to have been expensed but it relates to the loan notes that should have been held at amortised cost. Any interest paid on the loan notes would therefore reduce the value of the liability. The interest expense is then based upon the effective interest.

    Thanks

    May 22, 2019 at 6:16 am #516803
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Ok, thank you.

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    Posts
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  • The topic ‘Finance cost’ is closed to new replies.

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