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Fare value on step acquisition

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Fare value on step acquisition

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 weeks ago by AvatarStephen Widberg.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 24, 2026 at 12:38 pm #726612
    Avataralawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 319
    • Replies: 370
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello Sir,

    I a confusion on which to account as a fare value of Berthold co in the time of the step acquisition.

    As the model answers shows the fare value is The 40% of (10m shares x the current share price of $9.6) which is $36.8

    But what about the fare value which was included in te question which said “A further 35% stake in Berthold Co was acquired on 1 December 20X8 for $41 million, when
    the fair value of Berthold Co’s identifiable assets and liabilities was $55.3 million, and
    Berthold Co’s retained earnings were $42.3 million.”

    For what we can use this $55.3 fare value here?
    The market share price should be considered the fare value okay.
    But how can we distinguish between the fare fare value of the assets and liabilites and the market share price fare value.

    Q
    1 – Acquisition of Berthold Co
    Sterling Co paid $25 million for 40% of Berthold Co’s 10 million $1 ordinary shares on
    1 January 20X7 when Berthold Co’s retained earnings were $18 million. Berthold Co has no
    other reserves. Sterling Co exercised significant influence over Berthold Co’s financial and
    operating policy decisions.
    A further 35% stake in Berthold Co was acquired on 1 December 20X8 for $41 million, when
    the fair value of Berthold Co’s identifiable assets and liabilities was $55.3 million, and
    Berthold Co’s retained earnings were $42.3 million. The difference between the fair value of
    the identifiable assets and liabilities of Berthold Co and their carrying amounts related to
    non-depreciable land. The market price of Berthold Co’s shares immediately prior to
    1 December 20X8 was $9.20 per share. Sterling Co measures non-controlling interest at fair
    value at the date of acquisition. Goodwill at 31 March 20X9 is not impaired.
    Berthold Co reported a profit for the year ended 31 March 20X9 of $11.1 million.

    Thanks.

    April 27, 2026 at 6:35 am #730301
    AvatarStephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 3452
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Use FV of sub shares to measure:
    1. FV of original consideration for 40%
    2. FV of NCI

    Please watch my lectures on step acquisitions again for clarification:

    https://opentuition.com/acca/sbr/changes-in-group-structure-step-acquisitions-acca-sbr-lectures/

    April 28, 2026 at 9:13 pm #730308
    Avataralawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 319
    • Replies: 370
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    Thanks for reply,

    My question was why we were given the the fair value of Berthold Co’s identifiable assets and liabilities was $55.3 million?

    for what we can use it.

    That what confuse me with the share price fare value which is clear to me that it is the market price of the share which we can use it to get the fare value of the NCI and net assets of the sub if we are using proportionate method
    because the NCI can be separately given as a fare value .

    Thanks.

    April 29, 2026 at 8:20 am #730313
    AvatarStephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 3452
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I believe that in this question NCI is measured at FV not the proportionate method.

    As a general point, the exam tries to simulate real life – so we will be given all sorts of information in different ways….in the same way as clients do.

    🙂

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