Hi, I was wondering why is depreciation not charged in year 4? I was under the impression that depreciation is charged in the year of sale unless otherwise stated therefore I get the value of the asset to be £983.04 before it is sold.
Are we expected to do a time-apportioned in the final year (unless otherwise stated)? So in this case the time apportioned charged would be 0 in the final year since it was sold at the beginning of the year?