Dividend Valuation MethodForums › Ask CIMA Tutor Forums › Ask CIMA F3 Tutor Forums › Dividend Valuation MethodThis topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by P2-D2.Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)AuthorPosts February 14, 2019 at 12:26 pm #505108 goswamigora82ParticipantTopics: 3Replies: 1☆Dear Sir, I am having trouble in understanding Dividend Valuation method related to the query below. Appreciate if you can help be sort out the logic.When we value company using dividend valuation method or value of shares, some time the formula used is D1(1+g) / (Ke-g) and some time D1/(Ke-g)This create some difference in the answer i get and the answer mentioned in the book. February 17, 2019 at 11:00 am #505489 P2-D2KeymasterTopics: 4Replies: 7079☆☆☆☆☆Hi,It isn’t D1(1+g), you should be using Do(1+g) as this is then the same as D1, the dividend in one year’s time.ThanksAuthorPostsViewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)You must be logged in to reply to this topic.Log In Username: Password: Keep me signed in Log In