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Disposal of subsidiary Bpp workbook

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Disposal of subsidiary Bpp workbook

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 16, 2021 at 3:40 pm #606125
    StefanosG
    Participant
    • Topics: 20
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,

    I cannot understand the workings laid out in the solution to the following activity. How did they arrive to the $660 part of the workings for net assets and $200 for NCI?

    Pelmer Co acquired 80% of Symta Co’s 100,000 $1 shares on 1 Jan 20X2 for $600,000 when the reserves of Symta were $410,000. Symta had a brand name valued at $50,000 which was recognised on acquisition. The FV of the NCI at acquisition was $150,000.

    On 01 Jun 20X6 Pelmer disposed of its shareholding for $1,500,000. At that date, Symta’s reserves were $710,000 and it had net assets with a carrying amount of $650,000. The value of the brand name has not changed since acquisition.

    Solution:

    Consideration transferred 1,500,000
    Less
    share of consolidated
    amount at date control lost:
    Net assets (100+660+50) 810
    Goodwill 190
    NIC at date control lost 200

    Gain 700

    Thank you.

    January 18, 2021 at 8:02 pm #607023
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    I think the easiest way to get the net assets figure is to take the share capital of $100,000 and add on the reserves at the disposal date of $710,000. This then gives the $810,000 in the answer. I think their working is a bit too complicated.

    I don’t quite follow the NCI calculation as it should be the NCI at acquisition of $150,000 plus the 20% of the post aquisition movement in reserves. I make the movement to be $300,000 ($710,000 – $410,000) but then this doesn’t then give the correct answer, and gives $210,000. It could be there is a mistake in the solution or that I’m missing something.

    Thanks

    February 22, 2021 at 8:58 pm #611365
    lucasf
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hi, thank you for making this question. I’m trying to solve it right now, but their NCI calculation is confusing. I will assume that it is a mistake. I arrived to the same answer that the tutor gave you.

    April 16, 2021 at 8:45 am #617844
    lucasf
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    I just spotted an error in their Goodwill calculation, it says:

    600+150-410-50=190

    but if you do the sum, the result is 290. They forgot to add 100 corresponding to the subsidiary’s share capital. The correct answer IS 190 though.

    April 17, 2021 at 9:02 am #618003
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Glad you have been able to work it out.

    Thanks

    April 17, 2021 at 10:46 am #618014
    lucasf
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Well I finally understood this problem. The $710 figure includes the brand name fair value of $50 (710-50=660)

    S’s NA:
    at date of disposal = s/cap + reserves + brand = 100+660+50 = 810
    at acq date = s/cap + reserves + brand = 100+410+50 = 560
    post acquisition profits = 810-560 = 250

    NCI% of post acquisition profits = 250*20% = 50

    NCI figure = NCI @ acq (FV) + NCI% post acq profits = 150+50 = 200

    Goodwill = 600+150-100-410-50 = 190

    Gain on disposal (group accounts) = 1500-810-190+200 = 700

    April 17, 2021 at 10:50 am #618016
    lucasf
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    P2-D2 wrote:I don’t quite follow the NCI calculation as it should be the NCI at acquisition of $150,000 plus the 20% of the post aquisition movement in reserves. I make the movement to be $300,000 ($710,000 – $410,000) but then this doesn’t then give the correct answer, and gives $210,000. It could be there is a mistake in the solution or that I’m missing something.

    The correct figures to calculate NCI would’ve been:
    710-460=250

    It was definitely a confusing question.

    April 21, 2021 at 8:56 pm #618441
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Great work in solving it! Here’s hoping it makes an appearance in the exam as it will be straightforward for you now after working that one out.

  • Author
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