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Diluted EPS in Sep.16 Triage question

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Diluted EPS in Sep.16 Triage question

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 14, 2019 at 8:20 am #515859
    archi604
    Participant
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Hello. I have noticed the difference in calculation of diluted EPS by ACCA examiners and by all learning providers.

    This is the extract from Triage question:

    The following notes are relevant:
    (i) Triage Co issued 400,000 $100 6% convertible loan notes on 1 April 20X5. Interest is payable annually in arrears on 31 March each year. The loans can be converted to equity shares on the basis of 20 shares for each $100 loan note on 31 March 20X8 or redeemed at par for cash on the same date. An equivalent loan without the conversion rights would have required an interest rate of 8%.
    The present value of $1 receivable at the end of each year, based on discount rates of 6% and 8%, are:

    End of year
    6% ————-8%
    1)0·94——-0·93
    2)0·89——0·86
    3)0·84——0·79

    Tax rate -20%

    This is where the difference lies:

    1) Percentage used for finding saved interest (extra earnings). Open Tuition (in the example 2 of chapter 19) and BPP use simple interest rate, while Kaplan and ACCA (in this example) use an effective interest rate.

    Obviously, you may say that in the example 2 of OT, an effective interest rate is not mentioned, so use whatever rate is given. However, this creates confusion. Because when I see a similar problem, I automatically discard effective interest rate and use simple rate, since this is the way I see in your lectures and text.

    2) The basis figure for calculating saved interest (extra earnings)

    ACCA examiner splits convertible note into a debt component and equity component. So 40000 is divided into 37792 (debt) and 2208 (equity). Then the examiner finds saved interest by multiplying debt component by effective interest rate and after tax %

    37792 x 8% x (1-0.2)=2418.

    This is not the way how all learning providers teach. If I follow the way taught by learning providers I would calculate saved interest as follows:

    40000 x 8% (or 6% depending on the book I read) x (1-0.2).

    So I ask you to clarify this matter. What is the correct percentage rate? What figure should be taken as a basis figure?

    May 16, 2019 at 8:03 pm #516176
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    Technically the interest saved is that which is recognised through profit or loss, and that is using the effective rate which would have been applied to the outstanding liability balance. I think this is what has been done by the ACCA examiner.

    Thanks

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