At 31st July 20X6, Apollon International had non current assets which had cost $310000. At the same date, the accumulated depreciation on the assets was $120,000. The company had not disposed of any non current assets during the year to 31 July 20X7 but acquired an asset at a cost of $79200 on 1st January 20X7.
Depreciation is at a rate of 25% per annum. Charged from the first year of acquisition with a full year's charge.
We are required to compute the company's depreciation charge for the year to 31 July 20X7 using:
The Straight Line Method
Reducing Balance Method
The Straight Line method.
25/100 × 310000= 77500. Depreciation for first year.
25÷100×(310000+79200)= 156700. Acquired new asset, Add to original cost of non current assets.
Total Depreciation= 156,700 + 77,500= 234,200.
Reducing Balance Method.
25÷100×310000)=77500. 310000-77500=232500.
25÷100×(310000+79200)= 156700. 389200-156700= 232500.
232500+232500=465000.
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Depreciation.
Why are you attempting a question for which you do not have an answer? You should be using a Revision Kit from one of the ACCA Approved Publishers. They have answers and explanations.
Your answer is not correct.
With straight line depreciation, the charge/expense for the year ended 31 July 20X7 is:
25% x (310,000 + 79,200) = $97,300.
With reducing balance it is 25% x (310,000 - 120,000 + 79,200) = $67,300.
I do suggest that you watch my free lectures on depreciation. The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FA and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
Thank you for the explanation. I'll do as advised.
I have watched the lectures, why do we not subtract the AD from cost to give NBV using the straight line method? I still don't get it, confusing!
Straight line depreciation is calculate on the original cost (less any expected scrap proceeds).
Reducing balance depreciation is calculated on the net book value (i.e. cost less accumulated depreciation).
I think it would be worth you watching the lectures on this again.
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