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December 2012 GWW company

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › December 2012 GWW company

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • November 25, 2015 at 7:07 am #285077
    farhana001
    Member
    • Topics: 34
    • Replies: 45
    • ☆☆

    (a) (iv)(2) dvm using Gordon’s growth model
    Sir isn’t b= RE/PAT
    So that means 47.2/10.1?

    November 25, 2015 at 8:32 am #285110
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    b is the proportion of earnings that are retained. The amount retained is the earnings less the dividends.

    So if, for example, you only had the figures for 2009, the earnings are 8.5 and the amount retained would be 8.5 – 5 = 3.5. So b would then be 3.5/8.5

    In this particular question, because there are several years, the examiner has calculated an average by dividing the total retention by the total earnings.

    November 25, 2015 at 4:15 pm #285222
    farhana001
    Member
    • Topics: 34
    • Replies: 45
    • ☆☆

    Thank you Sir. I really appreciate your help.

    November 25, 2015 at 5:09 pm #285260
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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