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Dec 2014 Keshi

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Dec 2014 Keshi

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 11, 2015 at 10:40 am #245243
    Avatarstacie395
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Hi sir,

    Would like to clarify on part (a).

    Normally for gain on futures, we derive by taking tick value x no. of ticks x no. of contracts, right?

    How come in this question the gain is pro rated as well?

    thanks…

    May 11, 2015 at 4:06 pm #245283
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I never use ticks (and I explain why in my lectures). It is up to you, but there has never been a question where you have needed to use ticks. (You should know what ticks mean – and I explain that as well – but you certainly don’t need to use them.)

    I don’t know what you mean by the gain having been pro-rated!
    If you are asking about the 3/12, then it is because they are 3 month futures that we have the options on, and the gain is always calculated that way (as, again, I explain in the lectures).

    May 12, 2015 at 7:14 am #245398
    Avataretchuatem67
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 11
    • ☆

    Stacie, its better we use the following formula: no. of contracts x contract size x (futures rate at expiry- futures spot rate) = GAIN/(LOSS). is this correct John?

    May 12, 2015 at 10:19 am #245441
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – which is what I do in the lectures.

    But, for interest rate futures we have to divide the difference by 400 in order to calculate the gain (to calculate it as a three-month percentage, because they are three month futures). Again, I go through all of this in the lectures.

    May 26, 2015 at 6:44 am #249031
    Avatarstacie395
    Participant
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Hi sir,

    Regarding the interest swap, can you please clarify the following :-

    (a) The 0.8% is the benefits before bank charges. Can we deduct the 10 basis points first and then only calculate the advantage derived…?

    (b) How do we determine how much Keshi will receive or pay…?

    (c) Is the benefits derived for Rozu bank calculated as 0.3*0.8 = 0.24…?

    (d) Under the alternative way of working through the swap, i only managed to figure out that the 0.1% is the bank charges. How are the two other components derived…?

    Thanks…

    May 26, 2015 at 9:28 am #249083
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    (a) yes (although I don’t know why you would want to)

    (b) Keshi want to borrow fixed, but it paying out L + 0.4% so to make it fixed they receive 0.4% from the counterparty. This leaves them only paying 0.4%, so to end up with the required payment (of 5.5% – 0.56% = 4.94%) then have to pay the extra 4.54% (4.94 – 0.4) to the counterparty

    (c) Yes – the total benefit is 0.8% of which 70% goes to Keshi and therefore the other 30% to the counterparty.

    (d) see (b)

    (What you might find useful is to watch the lecture that I have uploaded working through Q1 of the June 2014 exam, because there is a swap in that question as well. (Which does make it rather less likely that he will have a swap for a third time this time 🙂 )

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