• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for September 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Crag co Bpp kit mcq

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Crag co Bpp kit mcq

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 8, 2018 at 2:23 pm #488476
    maxpopper
    Member
    • Topics: 177
    • Replies: 132
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir can you please explain me that how to do the following question

    Crag co has sales of $200m per year and GP margin is 40%. FG inventory days vary throughout the year within the following range:

    Inventory days 120 90

    All purchases and sales are made on a cash basis and no inventory of RM or WIP is carried. Crag co intends to finance permanent CAs with equity and fluctuating CAs with its O/D.

    In relation to FGs inventory and assuming a 360 day year, how much finance will be needed from overdraft?

    Correct ans is $10m

    December 9, 2018 at 9:24 am #488545
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The workings for the answer are printed in the Revision Kit!!

    The minimum inventory of 90 days will be financed by equity (the question says so). It is only the extra 30 days fluctuating inventory that is financed by the overdraft.
    30/360 x (60% x $200M) = $10M

    December 9, 2018 at 1:37 pm #488564
    maxpopper
    Member
    • Topics: 177
    • Replies: 132
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir why we have taken 60% overdraft rate here?

    December 10, 2018 at 7:17 am #488656
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54699
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    60% is not the overdraft rate. The overdraft interest of no relevant whatsoever.

    Inventory is valued at cost. Since ether gross profit is 40% of sales, the cost must be 60% of sales.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • o1lim on Discounted Cash Flow Further Aspects, Replacement – ACCA Financial Management (FM)
  • julio99 on Impairments – Impairment (CGU) – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • effy.sithole@gmail.com on EPS – diluted EPS Example – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • Ken Garrett on The Finance Function in the Digital Age – CIMA E1
  • DeborahProspect on ACCA SBR Specimen Exam 2 Question 1

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in