Dear Sir,
1) If you have a debt which is redeemable at par, do you always judgmentally select any (reasonable) percentage to discount at?
2) Further, the following taken from the Sep-17 to Jun-18 BPP Revision Kit solution to question 213:
- DF 5% yields a NPV of (2.25) then DF 4% yields a NPV of 3.02 (neither of these discount rates were given in the initial question hence my initial question). The IRR was computed as (4+(3.02/(3.02-2.25))X1).
However, based on my understanding from your IRR lecture, the IRR is derived as (1st discount rate used (in this case 5%)+ NPV of first discount rate (in this case 2.25)/Change in NPV (add when there's a neg & pos) X change in rate).
Could you please offer some clarity on this?
Ask the Tutor ACCA FM
Cost of redeemable debt
1. It does not matter whether the debt is redeemable at par or redeemable at a premium. In all cases you calculate the IRR by making 2 'guesses'.
2. I don't understand your problem. You make any reasonable 2 guesses to calculate the IRR. If the NPV at the first guess is positive then your second guess will be at a higher rate. If the NPV at the first guess is negative (as it is here) then your second guess will be at a lower rate.
In either case the workings that follow are exactly the same.
(Just as when calculating the IRR for a project in both Paper FM and in Paper F2. If you are still unclear then have a look at the Paper F2 lectures ioan investment appraisal.)
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