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Does the remoteness of damage has to do with the amount of damages. I mean does too remote mean that the damage done is of a very small amount.
Also is the following statement correct and if it is not correct then what is the reason:
The remoteness of damage issue is determined by considering the amount of damages the injured party reasonably expects on the basis of the contract breach and damages suffered.
What are the factors in determining damages payable
Is remoteness of damage issue a factor in determining damages and if it is not why
‘Remoteness’ refers to the reasonable foreseeability of the damage – could the reasonable man-in-the-street reasonably have foreseen that damage at the time of committing the breach
I believe that that answers all your questions on this post