- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by .
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
Viewing 5 posts - 1 through 5 (of 5 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for September 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Chapter 7 Example on Individual asset impairment
Hello,
Now in this example the surplus is 3250000 and the impairment loss is 3750000. The entire reval surplus has been exhausted, which is 3250000. And the remaining 50000 goes to p and l. So, I wanted to ask, what is that amount of 3250000 that goes to OCI?
Hi,
The 3250000 is the reduction in the value of the revalued asset. The asset has been originally revalued and a gain taken through OCI as it was unrealised. We should use this amount first prior to taking any hot through profit or loss.
Thanks
So, 3.25 is impairment loss which is unrealized (the 50k which is realized goes to p and l)because it was set off against the unrealized gains (reval gain) ?
Is it called reval loss or impairment loss, the amt that goes to OCI?
It would be an impairment loss.
