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Hello Sir,
I would like to know why do we take 20% of (350+40m) ?
why not 20% of 90% because the net asset is the 90% holding by the parent company.
or do we assume that the net asset belongs to the 100% of the subsidiary? if yes then could u please explain how to spot this in different questions.. I am a bit confused on this aspect.
Thanks
Manan.
Hi,
I don’t think you’d lose a huge amount of marks ether way, but technically the assets are controlled and consolidated in full and hence we only take 20%.
Thanks
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