Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › chapter 4 example 2
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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- May 14, 2020 at 3:05 pm #570828
Hi sir
as per technical article of ACCA proportionate share of goodwill is
“The traditional measurement of goodwill on the acquisition of a subsidiary is the excess of the fair value of the consideration given by the parent over the parent’s share of the fair value of the net assets acquired. This method can be referred to as the proportionate method. It determines only the goodwill that is attributable to the parent company.”
why in solution to this example 2 of OT notes the working of goodwill add share of NCI?
May 14, 2020 at 8:34 pm #570867You can either do COST MINUS P % NET ASSETS OF SUB
or
COST PLUS NCI % OF SUB NET ASSETS MINUS 100% NET ASSETS OF SUB
The answer is the same but we are following the formula in IFRS 3 – I’m sure that’s what you would have done in F7. The marker would expect to see the latter method
May 14, 2020 at 11:00 pm #570902then later is full goodwill method?
May 15, 2020 at 5:08 pm #570954No – they are both ways of calculating proportionate GW
Full GW uses FV of NCI not NCI share of S’s net assets
Have a look at P144 of FR (not SBR) notes
May 15, 2020 at 10:02 pm #570971thank you so much sir now I got the difference between two.
May 16, 2020 at 1:19 pm #571032My pleasure
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