Skip to contentSkip to search

CIMA Forums

Ch10 Example 6 – Free cash flows

RRachel8y ago
Hi, please will you explain why the tax figure in Ch10, example 6 is calculated as 935 x 20% = 187 and not (935 - 170) x 20% = 153. Thanks
P2-D2P2-D2Tutor8y ago#1
Hi, I suppose the 935 should be the profit before tax and not operating profit in order to make it correct. Thanks
RRachel8y ago#2
I've found a pdf on the CIMA website - Company valuations and free cash flow for students of F3.pdf which explains how to deduct tax in each case When calculating Free cash flow to all investors you Deduct Tax (excluding tax relief on interest) (PBIT x tax rate) which is what you have in the solution (apologies for questioning this previously) When calculating Free cash flow to equity you Deduct Tax for the year (PBIT – interest) x tax rate I think maybe the tax saving on interest should be added after the Free cash flow to all investors line, in a sense that you can't have a tax saving on interest until you've deducted the interest. I've put the two calculations below so it's clear. I think it must be in there somewhere because of the different way each free cash flow calculation deals with the tax deduction. Does this make sense? $000s Profit before interest and tax (operating profit) 935 Less: Tax (20% x (935-170)) (153) Add: Depreciation (non-cash) 120 Less: Investment in non-current assets (420) Less: Investment in working capital (185) Less: Interest (170) -------- FREE CASH FLOW TO EQUITY 127 -------- $000s Profit before interest and tax (operating profit) 935 Less: Tax (20% x 935) (187) Add: Depreciation (non-cash) 120 Less: Investment in non-current assets (420) Less: Investment in working capital (185) -------- FREE CASH FLOW TO ALL INVESTORS 263 Less: Interest (170) Add: tax saving on interest (20% x 170) 34 -------- FREE CASH FLOW TO EQUITY 127 --------
RRachel8y ago#3
I tried to lay the calculations out clearly but it deleted my spacing so it's not at all clear. I hope you can see what I was trying to do.
RRachel8y ago#4
I'm starting to doubt my understanding again. This looks like the free cash flow to debt holders is interest less tax on that interest (at the business rate of tax) which seems odd. If you don't put the 34 there where else would you put it?
Sign into reply to this topic.