Cashflow preparation question – Dickson q72 BPP

I can’t help you if that’s the only information you are going to give me!

Are all the figures you have given positives or is there an element of overdraft in there too.

And no matter how I use the figures given, there’s no way I can come up with 109 and 40

I don’t have the question to hand but I believe that it could be a past exam question. If so, could you let me have the reference ( so long as it is 2008 or later)

You’re welcome! Beware the overdraft! Also, beware the dividend! An exam question may give you an income statement and two balance sheets. Just check that retained earnings brought forward + profit after tax = retained earnings carried forward! It probably doesn’t and the reason is that a dividend has been paid out of profit after tax. It would be shown in statement of changes in equity but, of course, the examiner may well not show you a statement of changes in equity!

Good luck

You’re welcome

What about the issue of shares and the issue debentures

@Amuu said:
What about the issue of shares and the issue debentures

They are not part of cash and cash equivalents.

Dear sir, I need a help. Could u explain how the figure ($31) come in the liabilities working section of leases which we deduct as cash received/(paid).

I am gonna help you with the other information :

It shows in working section : leases(current & non current) b/d : $92 + new lease $56 -($31)= 117

Non-current lease liabilities in 20×7 is $80 and in 20×8 is $100
and current lease liabilities in 20×7 is $12 and in 20×8 is $17.

Thank you so much sir. you are very helpful…