hello
here are the relevant points to a question im currently stuck on
Capital and reserves: 20x1 20x2 difference
Ordinary shares 50c each 363 300 63
Share premium 89 92 3
Non-current liabilities:
10% loan notes 0 40 40
5% loan notes 329 349 20
notes:On 1 October 20X2, ABC issued 60,000 50c ordinary shares
at a premium of 100%. The proceeds were used to finance the
purchase and cancellation of all its 10% loan notes and some of its
5% loan notes, both at par. A bonus issue of one for ten shares held
was made on 1 November 20X2. All shares in issue qualified for
the bonus.
answer:
Cash flows from financing activities:
Proceeds from issue of share capital (60 × $1) 60
Redemption of 10% loan notes (40)
Redemption of 5% loan notes (20)
net 0
now why was it treated the way it was treated? because its clear that the difference between the two years in share capital is 63k but we just raised capital by 60k(notes) so what explains the extra 3k?and what explains the other 3k difference in the share premium account?
thanks for your time
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Cash flow from share capital
Hi,
There isn't anything within the question that highlights what the 3k is. It could be another bonus issue but there isn't anything in there to say as such.
Thanks
hi
its the TYU1 from kaplan textbook,i can post the entire question but the answer will still seem SUPER WEIRD.its almost as if it ignored everything else but the notes
thanks
I'd not worry yourself about it too much. You clearly understand the fundamentals of calculating the cash flows from issue of shares and won't have any issues answering a question in the exam.
Thanks
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