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Business valuation - BSOP model

Nnaruto11y ago
Dear Sir, Can you please explain the proxy for Pe when using the call option formula. I am finding different kinds of calculations from books and past papers. Thank you
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
There is not normally a proxy for Pe. I cannot give you a general answer - you will have to refer to a specific past exam question.
Nnaruto11y ago#2
ok sorry about that. In jun10 Q2 - AggroChem Co. For the value of Pe the examiner has calculated the PV of a zero coupon bond with same yield as the current debt $3000M*1.08^-5 = $2.04176M In Book - Eg $100 debt at carrying 5% interest, 5 years to maturity, the company's cost of debt is 8% The PV of the redemption value and interest for 5 years has been calculated giving a total of $88.08. Then the value of Pe = 88.08*1.08^5 = $129.42 I am a bit confused about these 2 calculations Thank you for your answer
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#3
In both cases, the MV is the PV of the future receipts. In Aggrochem, the question told you to do it for a zero coupon bond, so in that question the interest each year is zero.
Nnaruto11y ago#4
ok Thank you Sir. ;-)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
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