• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams

Comments & Instant poll

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams.
Get your discount code >>

Business valuation – BSOP model

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Business valuation – BSOP model

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 30, 2014 at 3:29 pm #214763
    naruto
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    Can you please explain the proxy for Pe when using the call option formula.
    I am finding different kinds of calculations from books and past papers.

    Thank you

    November 30, 2014 at 4:34 pm #214787
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    There is not normally a proxy for Pe.

    I cannot give you a general answer – you will have to refer to a specific past exam question.

    November 30, 2014 at 5:56 pm #214818
    naruto
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    ok sorry about that.

    In jun10 Q2 – AggroChem Co.
    For the value of Pe the examiner has calculated the PV of a zero coupon bond with same yield as the current debt $3000M*1.08^-5 = $2.04176M

    In Book – Eg $100 debt at carrying 5% interest, 5 years to maturity, the company’s cost of debt is 8%
    The PV of the redemption value and interest for 5 years has been calculated giving a total of $88.08. Then the value of Pe = 88.08*1.08^5 = $129.42

    I am a bit confused about these 2 calculations

    Thank you for your answer

    December 1, 2014 at 8:16 am #214968
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In both cases, the MV is the PV of the future receipts.
    In Aggrochem, the question told you to do it for a zero coupon bond, so in that question the interest each year is zero.

    December 1, 2014 at 12:50 pm #215093
    naruto
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    ok Thank you Sir.
    😉

    December 1, 2014 at 3:11 pm #215176
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Kaplan ACCA Free Trial

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • zurapirveli@gmail.com on Equity settled share based payments – goods – ACCA (SBR) lectures
  • Sid24012003 on Intangibles – Example 2 – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • Ken Garrett on CIMA BA1 Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
  • Ana1674 on CIMA BA1 Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
  • tehreem21 on MA Chapter 2 Questions Sources of Data

Copyright © 2026 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in