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Business Valuation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Business Valuation

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
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  • February 14, 2021 at 1:45 pm #610379
    Avataradarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello John,

    -A company has 7% loan notes in issue which are redeemable in seven years’ time at a 5%
    premium to their nominal value of $100 per loan note. The before?tax cost of debt of the
    company is 9% and the after?tax cost of debt of the company is 6%.

    1 In the question, 9% was used and not 6%. Could you please explain why?

    Thanks

    February 14, 2021 at 2:50 pm #610392
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Participant
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You do not say what the question is requiring. I assume that you are required to calculate the market value of the debt.

    As I stress in my free lectures (because it is so often relevant in the exam), it is investors who determine the market value of debt. It is the present value of their expected inflows discounted at their required rate of return. Investors are not affected by company tax and therefore their required return is the pre-tax cost of debt.

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