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BPP Revision kit 2017

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › BPP Revision kit 2017

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 12, 2017 at 8:56 pm #386025
    Avatarsaadjr
    Participant
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    Thanks you for your effort.Your lectures are really helpful.For me personally I prefer to watch your lectures than taking tuition.

    I am a bit confusing about a question in BPP books:

    (1) Black acquired 70% of Bury ordinary shares….

    Black Burry
    Profit for the year 31750 15000

    During the year ended Black sold goods to Bury which originally cost $12 million @40% mark up…Bury still have 30% of these goods in its inventory at the end of the year

    cost $12000
    Markup $4800
    SP $16800

    Unrealised profit = $4800 X 0.3 = $1440

    Prepare consldated st of profit and loss

    Profit for the year $ 38310

    The profit was correct.

    Profit attributable to :
    Owner (31750 + (15000*0.7) – (0.7 * 1440) = 41242
    Non controlling Interest (15000*0.3)-(1440*0.3) = 4068

    Please help me to understand why my profit attribute section is wrong

    Thank you

    May 13, 2017 at 6:19 am #386047
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is Black who sold the goods to Bury, and so even though it is Bury who still has the items in inventory it was Black who had taken the profit on them when they sold them to Bury.

    So when calculating the profit attributable part, all of the PURP comes off Black’s profit, not Bury’s. So the profit attributable to the NCI is their share of all of Bury’s profit.

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    Posts
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