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BPP Revision guide: 21 Complexity

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › BPP Revision guide: 21 Complexity

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by acca9.
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    Posts
  • August 21, 2017 at 8:12 am #402722
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    A company borrowed 47 million on 1 Dec x4 when the market and effective interest rate was 5%. On 30 November x5 the company borrowed an additional 45 million when the current market and effective interest rate was 7.4%.
    Both financial liabilities are repayable on 30 Nov x9 and are single payment notes, whereas interest and capital are repaid on that date.

    The requirement asks to account for the transaction using both amortised cost and Fair Value.
    So amortised cost i have managed but i cant seem to understand their workings for the Fair value calculation.
    They write that both the initial loan and new loan would have the same value and be carried at 45?

    I am a little confused?
    Thanks in advance.

    August 21, 2017 at 5:47 pm #402812
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7172
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The fair value would be the present value of the future cash flows. If you discount the two loans you should find that their values are the same.

    Thanks

    August 22, 2017 at 6:54 am #402867
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    Thank you!

    I missed that

  • Author
    Posts
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