Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › Bpp mcq practise kit 34.2 page 26

- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.

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- June 3, 2016 at 2:02 pm #319138
Its written that cf arise evenly why in kit the answe use different cash flow 16500 then 23500

It shouldnt be 16500 and 16500 becoz its evenly??

When to use ii over anuity cf ?? If nit here becoz evenly??

June 3, 2016 at 5:05 pm #319175The payback period is the number of years it takes to get back the original investment of (in this case) 46,000 in cash terms.

The depreciation each year is (46,000 – 7,000) / 4 = 9,750.

Therefore the cash inflow flow in the first year is the profit before depreciation, which is 26,250.This means that after the first year they still need another 46,000 – 26,250 = 19,750.

The cash inflow in the second year = 23500 + 9750 = 33,250.

They only need another 19750 to get back the original investment and therefore since the cash flows arise evenly, it will take 19750/33250 x 12 = 7.12 months of the second year.So the total payback period is 1 year 7 months (to the nearest month).

Annuities are when there are equal cash flows each year (which there are not here) and are only relevant in discounted cash flow exercises (and payback period is not discounted cash flow).

I suggest that you watch our Paper F2 lectures on investment appraisal, because payback period is revision from Paper F2.

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