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BPP Greenwood – Analysing statements – ROCE calculation and Capital Employed

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FR Financial Reporting Forums › BPP Greenwood – Analysing statements – ROCE calculation and Capital Employed

  • This topic has 5 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 11 months ago by wezi98.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 24, 2018 at 3:07 pm #469175
    charlichickxx
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    I generally understand the ratio’s and analysis questions however, am still having hiccups when trying to understand the capital employed required within the ratio’s calculations.

    In particular, I can’t figure out how to arrive at the ROCE figures for the question detailed below. I have searched for this one and found someone with the same question as me who clearly either figured it out or was too lazy to give you the question in full (they just gave the question name without details!).

    (Apologies – it’s a long informative one but I’ve explained my misunderstanding and problems at the end! Thank you in advance!)
    ———————————————————————————————
    258 Greenwood (from BPP Practice and revision kit 2018)

    Greenwood is a public listed company. On 31 March 20X7 Greenwood sold its 80%-owned subsidiary – Deadwood – for $6 million. The directors have been advised that the disposal qualifies as a discontinued operation and it has been accounted for accordingly. The disposal proceeds were not collected until after the year end.

    Extracts from Greenwood’s financial statements are set out below.

    CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF PROFIT OR LOSS FOR THE YEAR ENDED 31 MARCH
    20X7 20X6
    $’000 $’000
    Revenue 27,500 21,200
    Cost of sales (19,500) (15,000)
    Gross profit 8,000 6,200
    Operating expenses (2,900) (2,450)
    5,100 3,750
    Finance costs (600) (250)
    Profit before taxation 4,500 3,500
    Income tax expense (1,000) (800)
    Profit for the year from continuing operations 3,500 2,700
    Profit/(loss) from discontinued operations (1,500) 320
    Profit for the year 2,000 3,020
    Profit attributable to:
    Owners of Greenwood 2,300 2,956
    Non-controlling interest (300) 64
    2,000 3,020
    Analysis of discontinued operation:
    Revenue 7,500 9,000
    Cost of sales (8,500) (8,000)
    Gross profit/(loss) (1,000) 1,000
    Operating expenses (400) (550)
    Profit/(loss) before tax (1,400) 450
    Tax (expense)/relief 300 (130)
    (1,100) 320
    Loss on measurement to FV of disposal group (500) –
    Tax relief on disposal group 100 –
    Profit/(loss) from discontinued operations (1,500) 320

    STATEMENTS OF FINANCIAL POSITION AS AT 31 MARCH
    20X7 20X6
    $’000 $’000 $’000 $’000
    Property, plant and equipment 17,500 17,600
    Goodwill 1,500
    Current assets
    Inventory 1,500 1,350
    Trade receivables 2,000 2,300
    Due on sale of subsidiary 6,000 nil
    Bank nil 9,500 50 3,700
    Total assets 27,000 22,800

    Equity and liabilities
    Equity shares of $1 each 10,000 10,000
    Retained earnings 4,500 2,750
    14,500 12,750
    Non-controlling interest 1,250
    14,000
    Non-current liabilities
    5% loan notes 8,000 5,000
    Current liabilities
    Bank overdraft 1,150 nil
    Trade payables 2,400 2,800
    Current tax payable 950 4,500 1,000 3,800
    Total equity and liabilities 27,000 22,800

    Note. The carrying amount of the assets of Deadwood at 31 March 20X6 was $6.25 million. Greenwood measures non-controlling interest at share of net assets.
    ———————————————————————————————
    My understanding is: ROCE = PBIT/Capital employed, where
    capital employed = total assets – current liabilities = equity + non-current liabilities

    Trying either of these directly isn’t making any sense in my head and I’m feeling pretty lost with it!

    For X6, my attempts at calculations were….

    assets = 22800
    current liabilities = 3800
    capital employed = 19000

    or

    equity = 12750
    non-current liabilities = 5000
    capital employed = 17750

    Neither are correct obviously so, I went to the answer (in attempt to understand)… the calculation given is:

    ROCE 20X6 = (3,750/(12,750 + 5,000 – 6,250))
    Are you able to explain where the 6250 comes from please?

    The answer for the ROCE 20X7 is also confusing me…
    ROCE 20X7 = (4,500 + 400*)/(14,500 + 8,000 – 6,000)
    I am not sure why we add the 400 to the PBIT? The notes say it relates to interest from loan notes but I’m not really getting my head around why the PBIT isn’t 4500 +600 where 600 is the finance costs stated in the SPLOCI.
    (I at least understand that we are taking the 6000 off from equity and NC-L’s because it’s a one-off and would obscure the analysis!)

    I really appreciate any help you can give… especially with the exams so close now! Thank you!!!! 🙂

    August 25, 2018 at 9:38 pm #469323
    utsavlt
    Participant
    • Topics: 31
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    In this scenario ROCE is calculated based only upon the continued operation.

    Look at the Note. The carrying amount of the assets of Deadwood at 31 March 20X6 was $6.25 million. Greenwood measures non-controlling interest at share of net assets.

    Capital Employed is calculated on net assets and the net assets contains $6.25 million (from discontinued operation ) so it is deducted in 20×6

    IN year 20X7, the figure 400 comes from interest charged upon (5% loan notes of 8000) and this is the similar reason for charging of 250 in year 20×6.

    Not pretty sure, but instead of charging 600, 400 might be charged since there is the bank overdraft in year 20×7 which may have caused to deduct 600 and add 400 to calculate the Profit before Interest and Tax.

    Since 20X6 has no any overdraft to calculate PBIT,the interest charge on loan has been (5% of 5000=250) and 250 has been shown as the finance charge .

    (still I may not be right with charging 400 instead of 600,hope the tutor does reply)

    August 26, 2018 at 8:35 am #469436
    charlichickxx
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Thank you utsavit!

    Yes, that makes perfect sense now… I didn’t think to remove the discontinued operations from the previous year however, thinking now, it makes sense for comparibility!

    And again, I can now see why it would be 400 and totally agree that it would be the interest from the loan notes… because the loan notes are relating to Deadwood.

    Thank you!

    February 28, 2021 at 12:35 am #612036
    Maisam813
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Hello,
    I am still confused with this question first, while we remove the effect of discontinued operation from capital employed why we don’t remove effect on profit?
    Second, while we discontinued operation it means that there is no effect of that in statement of financial position so again why we deduct amount receivable from sale of subsidiary?
    I think it makes no sense, please if you know help me! Because I have exam on 4th march

    October 11, 2022 at 8:14 pm #668207
    Fujilandmark
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    I understand Deadwood interest 400 is excluded. But why it doesn’t use 5,100 simply?
    I think 4,900 is after overdraft interest 200.

    PBIT(profit before interest and tax)

    July 8, 2024 at 12:38 pm #708035
    wezi98
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Hey, could you please share the rest of the solutions for this question.

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