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BPP Chrysos Q49

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › BPP Chrysos Q49

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 months ago by John Moffat.
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  • March 4, 2022 at 1:25 pm #649815
    fiz90
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 14
    • ☆

    Hello Sir

    i noticed in the calculation to free cash flow in this question they deduct depreciation from EBIT and then calculate tax. In your lecture, you taught us to deduct tax from EBIT and then add depreciation. Can you please explain this as i am concerned with the exam around the corner.

    Thank you

    March 4, 2022 at 3:00 pm #649824
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 51543
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is for the same reasons as I explain in my lectures on investment appraisal.

    The question says that “the annual reinvestment needed to keep operations at their current levels is equivalent to the tax allowable depreciation”. This is what the current examiner normally writes, and in this case it is not necessary to add back the depreciation (because although the TAD is not a cash flow, there is a cash outflow of the same amount).

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