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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › boullain (march 2020)
Hi sir, in this question
1) i have calculated the lock in rate as (1.449+(1.422-1.1449)*2/3), however im getting a different answer, is mine correct as well?
2) in the mark to market part i have done (1.1418-1.1410)%*81*200000*3/12, is this also correct?
sorry mark to market i got confused its forex. just clarify the 1st doubt, thank you.
Your calculation gives exactly the same answer as the examiners answer if you had used the correct figures and had calculated it properly!! (Why have you used 1.449 and 1.422 when the correct figures are 1.1449 and 1.1422?)
1.1449 + ((1.1422-1.1449)x2/3) = 1.1449 + (-0.0018)
Adding a negative number is the same as subtracting that number.
So it becomes 1.1449 – 0.0018 = 1.1431