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Baldie – Financial Instruments

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Baldie – Financial Instruments

  • This topic has 7 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 10, 2022 at 7:41 pm #668265
    Fuad
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,
    I have seen that this question has been posted before on the forums but I still do not understand. Please help

    Baldie Co issues 4,000 convertible bonds on 1 January 20×2 at par. The bonds are redeemable three years later at a par value of $500 per bond, which is the nominal value.
    The bonds pay interest annually in arrears at an interest rate ( based on nominal value) of 5%. Each bond can be converted at the maturity date into 30 1$ shares.

    The prevailing market interest rate for three year bonds that have no right of conversion is 9%
    Required

    Show how convertible bond would be presented in the statement of financial position at 1 January 20×2.

    Cumulative Three year annuity Factors:

    5% 2.723
    9% 2.531

    Answer:

    Working: FV of equivalent non- convertible debt

    PV of principal payable at end of 3 years
    (4,000 x $500 = ($2m x 1/1.09)3 = 1,544,367

    PV of interest annuity payable annually in arrears for 3yrs
    [(5% x $2m) x 2.531] = 253,100

    Financial Liability of Convertible bond $1,797,467 (1,544,367+253,100)

    Equity = 2,000,000 – $1,797,467 = $202,533

    My Answer: ( I am confused on the discounting bit)

    Net proceeds = 4000 bonds *$500 = $2m

    PV of Liability at Acq:

    Yr1: $2m * 1/1.09
    Yr2: $2m * 1/1.09^2
    Yr3:$4m * 1/1.09^3

    Total Liability = $5.062M
    Equity = (balancing figure) = 3.062m

    October 11, 2022 at 1:19 pm #668307
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3408
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yr 1 2m x 5% / 1.09
    Yr 2 2m x 5% / (1.09) ^2
    Yr 3 2m x 5% / (1.09)^3
    Yr 3 2m / (1.09)^3

    Not sure what you are doing, but don’t do it! You are trying to discount company’s future cash outflows.

    🙂

    October 11, 2022 at 8:10 pm #668339
    Fuad
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Understood Sir. Much appreciated!
    There is a difference of about $29 compared to the answer in the textbook. Would this lose marks if it were marked in the exam?
    For clarification purposes. How would we go about subsequent measurement of the Financial liability ?
    Would this be correct:

    Yr 1: B/f = 1,797,494.96 + Fin cost 5%: 89,874 – Cash paid: 100,000 = C/F : 1,787,368.96

    October 12, 2022 at 7:45 am #668362
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3408
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Finance cost = 9% of carrying amount not 5%

    Don’t worry about $29 🙂

    October 12, 2022 at 4:32 pm #668471
    Fuad
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Sir, I thought we calculate finance costs using the effective rate of interest. Wouldn’t it be 5% ?

    ”The bonds pay interest annually in arrears at an interest rate ( based on nominal value) of 5%. Each bond can be converted at the maturity date into 30 1$ shares.”

    October 12, 2022 at 5:05 pm #668473
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3408
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No – for convertibles:

    1. Normal borrowing rate = 9 = for P&L
    2. Actual rate = 5 = for cash paid.

    If you do it that way the CA of the liability will be 2m at end of bond’s term (I hope!)

    October 13, 2022 at 5:59 pm #668550
    Fuad
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 31
    • ☆

    Understood. Thank you sir !

    October 14, 2022 at 7:00 am #668570
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3408
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    🙂

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  • The topic ‘Baldie – Financial Instruments’ is closed to new replies.

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