In Example 3 of Chapter 25 (Associates) of the FR notes, the answer at the back of the notes say it is D. Why isn’t it C? Why do we credit the investment in Associate when the unsold inventory as at year end is in the parent’s books?
Thanks for spotting this. Yes, I look to have updated the notes themselves for the confirmed treatment from the ACCA but have not updated the answer to the question. Apologies for that and I’ll get it updated for the September sitting.