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Amortisation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Amortisation

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 15, 2021 at 10:04 pm #627881
    alawi sayed
    Participant
    • Topics: 301
    • Replies: 352
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello Sir,

    Why in the following question we did not use the amortisation cost just accrual of interest ,

    but in the second question we used amortization cost,

    the when we must use the amortization and when must not ?

    Thanks,

    A 5% loan note was issued on 1 April 20X0 at its face value of $20 million. Direct costs of the issue were
    $500,000. The loan note will be redeemed on 31 March 20X3 at a substantial premium. The effective interest
    rate applicable is 10% per annum.
    At what amount will the loan note appear in the statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X2?

    A $21,000,000
    B $20,450,000
    C $22,100,000
    D $21,495,000

    Answer

    D $21,495,000
    $’000
    Proceeds (20m – 0.5m) 19,500
    Interest 10% 1,950
    Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000)
    Balance 30 March 20X1 20,450
    Interest 10% 2,045
    Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000)
    21,495
    ——————————————————————————————————————————

    An 8% $30 million convertible loan note was issued on 1 April 20X5 at par. Interest is payable in arrears on
    31 March each year. The loan note is redeemable at par on 31 March 20X8 or convertible into equity shares
    at the option of the loan note holders on the basis of 30 shares for each $100 of loan. A similar instrument
    without the conversion option would have an interest rate of 10% per annum.
    The present values of $1 receive at the end of each year based on discount rates of
    8% and 10% are:
    8% 10%
    End of year 1 0.93 0.91
    2 0.86 0.83
    3 0.79 0.75
    cumlative 2.58 2.49

    What amount will be credited to equity on 1 April 20X5 in respect of this financial instrument?

    A $5,976,000
    B $1,524,000
    C $324,000
    D $9,000,000

    Answer
    B $1,524,000
    $’000
    Interest years 1–3 (30m × 8% × 2.49) 5,976
    Repayment year 3 (30m × 0.75) 22,500
    Debt component 28,476
    Equity option (?) 1,524
    30,000

    July 17, 2021 at 8:32 pm #628095
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7177
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The key difference is that in the second scenario we have a convertible instrument and so split accounting is used to do the accounting treatment. This is where the value of the liability is calculated using the present value of the future cash flows and the difference between this figure and the proceeds is the equity figure.

    In the first scenario we have a straight financial liability, with no option to convert so there is not split accounting to be used.

    Thanks

  • Author
    Posts
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