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Amortisation

ASalawi sayed4y ago
Hello Sir, Why in the following question we did not use the amortisation cost just accrual of interest , but in the second question we used amortization cost, the when we must use the amortization and when must not ? Thanks, A 5% loan note was issued on 1 April 20X0 at its face value of $20 million. Direct costs of the issue were $500,000. The loan note will be redeemed on 31 March 20X3 at a substantial premium. The effective interest rate applicable is 10% per annum. At what amount will the loan note appear in the statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X2? A $21,000,000 B $20,450,000 C $22,100,000 D $21,495,000 Answer D $21,495,000 $'000 Proceeds (20m – 0.5m) 19,500 Interest 10% 1,950 Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000) Balance 30 March 20X1 20,450 Interest 10% 2,045 Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000) 21,495 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ An 8% $30 million convertible loan note was issued on 1 April 20X5 at par. Interest is payable in arrears on 31 March each year. The loan note is redeemable at par on 31 March 20X8 or convertible into equity shares at the option of the loan note holders on the basis of 30 shares for each $100 of loan. A similar instrument without the conversion option would have an interest rate of 10% per annum. The present values of $1 receive at the end of each year based on discount rates of 8% and 10% are: 8% 10% End of year 1 0.93 0.91 2 0.86 0.83 3 0.79 0.75 cumlative 2.58 2.49 What amount will be credited to equity on 1 April 20X5 in respect of this financial instrument? A $5,976,000 B $1,524,000 C $324,000 D $9,000,000 Answer B $1,524,000 $'000 Interest years 1–3 (30m × 8% × 2.49) 5,976 Repayment year 3 (30m × 0.75) 22,500 Debt component 28,476 Equity option (?) 1,524 30,000
PP2-D2Tutor4y ago#1
Hi, The key difference is that in the second scenario we have a convertible instrument and so split accounting is used to do the accounting treatment. This is where the value of the liability is calculated using the present value of the future cash flows and the difference between this figure and the proceeds is the equity figure. In the first scenario we have a straight financial liability, with no option to convert so there is not split accounting to be used. Thanks
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