Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › Alpha Division – 12/07
- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by Edward.
- AuthorPosts
- November 9, 2015 at 9:40 pm #281330
Hi,
I don’t understand the solution answer to part A (II) for this question. I don’t understand the linkage between the 3 profit measures and the 5 items provided. I read the solution a few times now but I don’t get why they have them linked them the way they have. Can you potentially simplify it for me?
Thanks,
Ed
November 10, 2015 at 8:46 am #281421The question has three different ‘profits’ that could be used to evaluate the manager or the division.
So, 1 Variable short run margin would contain items (i) and (ii). Is that an acceptable measure of managerial performance when the transfer price is fixed? The answer concludes that it’s OK because the transfer price is determined by market price so that would seem fair.
2 Controllable profit would contain (i) (ii) (iii) as management has some control over all of these. It is not clear whether (iv) should be charged at this point or not as that depends on whether current management was responsible for buying those assets being depreciated.
3 Divisional profit, perhaps (iv) should be charged only at this level. As for (v) whether it is fair to charge this to the division depends on the use the division makes of those services and that is not necessarily within the control of the divisional manager. If they were incurred and then recharged using some arbitrary formula the division could be unfairly penalised by these so that divisional profit was unreasonably low.
December 5, 2015 at 10:09 am #287784Thanks Gromit,
That clears that up for me.
For the same question part B (I), can EVA be calculated from the operating profit (Profit before tax), rather than the Profit after tax? I see solution has used PAT. Was trying to use the other profit figure but I couldn’t get it to calculate back for me.
Also, I see the solution hasn’t added back the other non-cash expense to the capital employed. Why is this the case? I taught this should be added back to retained profits at the end of each year.
Appreciate your help.
Thanks,
Ed
December 5, 2015 at 10:12 am #287786Hi Gromit,
You can ignore the second part to the above question as I see other non-cash expense is added to the second year. Not added to the first year as you would be using the 2005 capital employed figure.
Thanks,
Ed
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.