[zakariamukta]

As the asset value is 52k and full depreciation on purchase year and no for disposal year, it means calculation like

asset value 52k
Depreciation 20×2 to 20×6 (52k-4k(as the residual value))/8 years*5 years

=30k

Now the net book value of the asset is (52k-30k)=22k
Sell price is 35k and net book value is 22k so 13k is profit as you have sold the asset more than its value.

Hope you understand

[zakariamukta]

thanks you sir

[zakariamukta]

sir,
there are 2 or more strike rate available there where we can choose the best one. Would you please tell me how do i choose the best one.?

[zakariamukta]

thanks sir for your explanation.
Would you sir give an example for that plz 🙂

[zakariamukta]

I also want to know

[zakariamukta]

Anyundo please tell me the page number of bpp text

[zakariamukta]

Hello Mike,
Then when the examiner want the audit risk do we answer like the RMM (e.g. overstatement or understatement of asset or liability) or we should talk about the auditor focus on that particular area and said this is inherent risk for example.?

[zakariamukta]

I am also interested about to hear it

[zakariamukta]

ugras05 could i get ur lucky note that help u to pass if i can then send it to
moktaacca@yahoo.com

[zakariamukta]

i wanted to how to pass f8 very easily and which topic i always focus to pass……..

[Author]

Posts