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- January 14, 2018 at 11:50 pm #429401
Guys please don’t close the thread before confirming the theories! Especially those who were getting error messages
January 13, 2018 at 6:19 pm #428915What does it matter which paper though
January 13, 2018 at 10:42 am #428842January 13, 2018 at 9:57 am #428836But if you reset your password you can log in
December 14, 2016 at 5:07 pm #363705In my opinion, I don’t think all the marks are for the final answer! Remember you had to calculate different figures, so I think the marks are spread out
December 14, 2016 at 4:47 pm #363691Nominal means they were already adjusted for inflation (i.e there was no need to inflate them!) That, to me, meant you had to include them as they were
December 14, 2016 at 4:26 pm #363685Andrew, are you sure about the fixed costs? They were even nominal, so I don’t think your point is right ???
December 13, 2016 at 5:02 pm #363591Ohhh! fumsky002 my question was what was the question in the paper, as I don’t remember it exactly! Though someone must have answered it in previous posts!
December 13, 2016 at 12:54 pm #363559Sorry, what was the question?
December 13, 2016 at 12:28 pm #363552It’s (dividend % on nominal value)/market price
December 13, 2016 at 12:14 pm #363549Well, cost of preference share is dividend/market price! Cost of equity use CAPM for that … soo..
December 13, 2016 at 9:11 am #363527We had options of probability analysis, sensitivity analysis, simulation … so there’s that! And treasury bills are issued by the government and thus they are risk free 🙂
Idk why people are worried, we shall pass!! :):)December 12, 2016 at 6:19 pm #363477Sorry, I don’t remember, pinkyjovin123
December 12, 2016 at 12:45 pm #363450Rights issues are always cheaper than the share price
December 12, 2016 at 3:15 am #363324@ ematete2005 the question said it was 20%
December 11, 2016 at 3:24 pm #363285Hello @ pinkyjovin123 you should check previous pages, most of those were already answered! Hope that helps …
December 11, 2016 at 2:42 pm #363276Why do those fixed costs figures seem different from those in the paper? Weren’t they in 100k’s?
December 11, 2016 at 1:55 pm #363269Conlonl, I don’t remember that question clearly to give you an appropriate response but what you described is the the conversion value!
Vikar, commercial paper is a money market instrument issued at a discount, it’s not interest bearing
December 11, 2016 at 12:46 pm #363246The convertible bonds have a market value! (Conversion value*discount factor of final year) + (interest*annuity factor)
December 10, 2016 at 6:36 pm #363149It was part B, before the question of ways of analysing risk
December 10, 2016 at 12:22 pm #363054I can’t seem to quote! Anyway, the money market instrument was commercial paper which are only used by large companies (the co. in the question was one!) Treasury bills are used by the government
December 10, 2016 at 10:32 am #363029Rights issue 5 and capital rationing 4
December 10, 2016 at 9:16 am #362999On the question with the agency problem, I too didn’t see this as the answer coz I also thought the other seemed more plausible! I think it was D? I don’t really remember the exact answer, sorry
December 10, 2016 at 8:51 am #362985Did you work out PI numbers from past papers or the revision kit? I could have sworn it was PV/Initial investment! But I don’t know, I could be wrong
December 10, 2016 at 8:39 am #362973PI =(NPV+Initial Investment)/Initial investment
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