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Many thanks for Opentuition for your extremely useful supports :). Finally, i finish ACCA 🙂
Many thanks again 🙂@dicksonmugo said:
Those dint make..keep working hard.focus much on understanding the text book followed by review of past papers.Q4 and Q3 often seem to come directly from the study material…less twisted. Also read the question.Dont assume what u know is what the examiner is asking.Sept Q4 was good example.corporate failure…with hidden paragraph at end of question that changed the approach to answering the Q@dicksonmugo, please share more details with Q4. I failed and so confused about the results as I expect 50% 🙁
Dear Sir,
Yes, the final assessment from multi-facet KPIs should be matched and shared between facets.
Many thanks Sir for your advises 🙂Regards,
Trang Nguyen.it means Performance Pyramid provides a systematic mechanism of measure which different to a measure fits to a randomly objective?
Dear Mr. Gromit
I thought:
– Variable cost will be encourage for goal congruence while low motivation for division when external market exist.
– Fixed cost: as you said, critical in decision for closing down factory or manufacturer.In deciding max/min transfer pricing (TP) I think TP policy is determined whether variable coverage or fixed one, profit center treatment etc. Opportunity cost is included also, especially when external sale available.
How are your opinion? Could you share with us your opinion for setting TP and assess divisional performance when TP exist? what are the noted point for the exam?
many thanks Sir in advance 🙂
Regards,
Trangtubin@opentuition_team said:
the only reason why it may not work for some users is if their PC is behind a firewall.. and there is nothing we can do from this side 🙁Oh, thank you OT Team :). It works well now in my PC 🙂
Dear OT_Team, I tried to connect to the chat room, but it said failed. How is the chat room properly work?
Could you please check it?
Once again, many thanks for your initiative and supports 🙂yes, Mr. John, I made wrong conclusion that MM ignore financial risk. But let’s return to APV here. I see know concern of change in financial risk in APV calculation. APV only take into account of tax shield as benefit, and ignore change in financial risk. Discount rate is still ungearing.
Please let me have your opinion here.
Thanks Mr. John.Tax shield of interest is presented for only financial benefit (tax saved), not financial risk. I think financial risk reflected in cost of fund, means discounting rate.
I agree that it follow MM’s theory that debt is prefer for its tax saving. However, MM is also ignore financial risk when suggest Debt is superior than equity funds.
Dear Kash, ACCA released our attendance docket by beginning of May. If you still not receive your docket, please contact to ACCA soon. You can contact them directly via myacca, in contact line.
Hope all will go well Kash 🙂Mr. John: “You are still misreading what I have written. There is no such thing as “start of time 1?. Time 1 is one year from now – it does not have a start or an end.”
the different here :). The question clearly stated ” at the start of year 1″ (as your Time 1), and “at the end of year four” (as your time 4) :D.
Anyway, i do not wish waste your time any more, Mr. John :D.
Many thanks for your so enthusiasm and supports so far 🙂I am sure that both you and the answer make a link from “start of time 1” -> time 0 to “start of time 4” -> time 3 discounting. That true in principle. But in this case, that is not “start of time 4”, it is “at the end of time 4”.
Any way, this is the only case i did not agree about discounting factor from both paper F5, F9 or P4. And it is likely that i can not make a change here. So, we should stop.
For all of your supports, many thanks Mr. John 🙂
Dear Mr. John,
The principle of weighted average beta of sub-businesses is only applied for ASSET BETA ? NOT for EQUITY BETA ?
because equity beta taken into account capital structure, which we can not reasonably assume weighted average rule between sub-businesses apply here?
Tianxiao, please state your question clearly. I guess there are two similar issues in the above question.
Example. Now is 1st March and the Co need to borrow at the beginning of June. Your company decide to hedge by interest rate Future and the most suitable one is June Future.
1st Mar: you sell June Future and occur basic
the basic will evenly reduce to 0 until maturity date – 30 June, not on 1 June. Therefore, the basic will be expected to straight line reduced during 4 month.I understand the rule but just have one point we should focus. ” at the end of year four” is entirely different to “at the start of year four” which are used by the answer. The Answer and your explanation are all concerned as “at the start of year four”? But the question quoted that is “at the end of year four”
“At the end of year four”: discounted at 1/1.1^4
WHILE “at the beginning of year four”: discounted at 1/1.1^3 (as chose by you and examiner)This is only one i confused.
just make it a clear of “end of year four” and “at year four”
By the table provided by them, from year one to year three are all “at the start” of each individual year.
If they say, operation cash flow come from year four, we could assume “at the start” of year four as consistence. If it was “at the start” of year four, which is same as “at the end” of year three and discount rate of 1/1.1^3 is correct.
However, it is “end of year four”, not “start of year four”.Oh, you’re probably right, but it is not familiar with my common senses :D.
Anyway, i will re-grasp it in my own way. Thank you sir for your helpings 🙂all of the job, and even the adventure movies are not started yet. Therefore, delay option can be available for full project (means include both first two year of initiation investment), not only after two-year period to decide whether continue or not. As I confused, whether it is wise to make option until this stage (after two years) which is only suitable when now is the end the second year.
